Is there such a creature as a male with true low desire?
Or do we have scenarios where there are either emotional, physical, or relational issues that cause a loss of libido?
Since women have little testosterone, there is a logical reason why their libido fluctuates--it's not hormonally based to the extent that a man's is.
But men....they have a constant flood of T coursing thru their veins. In order to have an LD man, there has to be either something counteracting the T, or the man is directing his sexual urges away from his partner.
Are there men out there who truly don't want a lot of sex?
I say no.
I think that there might be men who don't want to engage in IC with their wives that often, but these same men are almost surely masturbating on a regular basis for release.
Is the term low desire husband a misnomer? Does this creature exist?
Or do we have normal drive guys who direct their urges away from their wives, for one reason or another? You've got: depression, ED, PE, psychological problems such as madonna/whore, porn addictions, relational things like wife is a shrew, etc etc.
I think the LDW exists, for sure. Women rely on outside sources, instead of hormones, for their sexual urges. When/if these outside sources wane, so does desire. Men's desire is regulated and constantly replenished by testosterone.
Sure you can say that the definition of LD and HD is simply that one partner is "more" and one "less" but again I'm not sure that's accurate when it concerns an LD man. I don't mean to imply that all LDH's are guilty of selfishly taking their desire from their wives--though some sure are--I am only saying that physically..biologically..there is no reason to believe that an LD male exists. Fix the 'cause' of the LDness and you've got an HD man again. Theoretically anyway.
I was thinking about this and wondering why SO many LDH's here on the board have normal to high testosterone and still have problems with their sexual desire. Their bodies are *pushing* them to have sex--what's the hold up?
How much energy is expended subverting this urge? (and the follow up question, WHY?!)
I suppose my real question is this: If a man has a normal level of T and thinks like an hd man and has urges like an hd man, can he really be classified as LD? Or is it more accurate to say that he's an HD guy who acts LD for some reason?
