Women couldn’t divorce their husbands back then, so the reference only covers a man divorcing his wife, but I think it’s safe to assume it goes both ways.
What makes you think that just because society changed the rules of divorce (allowing a W to divorce there H) That God did? God's words back then are God's words still. As society changes it rewrites the bible not God. He has never sent a memo out to my knowledge recanting anything said that was the word of the Lord. But I lack alot of knowledge so I might have missed that memo.
