Thank you everyone for your honesty and openness around sex. I don't have anything to add for anyone, except that my WS used to use a vibrator around her clit when she was on top in order to get her first orgasm. She is not able to have orgasm from IC, until she has a first clitoral orgasm. Sometimes it is from my manual stimulation, or my oral sex, and it used to be sometimes from the vibrator. We haven't done that since DDay, since I have issues with the vibrator. She used it with her phone sex interviews with the OM, so it has bad associations for me. I have thought of throwing it away. We still do, however, after some initial hesitation, have regular sex (1-2 times a week). It has become easier for me to bring her to orgasm with oral sex after the DDay, and I haven't brought up the subject with WS, but think it may have something to do with the fact that this horrible secret (for her, and especially for me) is out in the open and she doesn't feel as anxious as before. But I haven't talked with her about it, so don't know. What I wanted to ask all W on the BB, is it possible for a woman to have an intercourse orgasm without first having a clitoral orgasm? For my WS I don't think it is possible and she doesn't think it is possible for most women. This would go against much of the fiction literature you can read, which describes a man and woman reaching simultaneous orgasm after the man penetrates with initial intercourse. So what do you think?
"The world breaks everyone and afterward many are strong in the broken places." - Ernest Hemingway, A Farewell to Arms, 1929.
