Hey WB. Does the fact that ML is a "socially acceptable" facet of marriage, and anal sex is arguably not, make a difference in the PM equation here? For example, let's take BJs and anal our of the equation, and just focus on missionary-position sex. You get married to a woman who says she is repulsed by it, but hey, one of the MAIN reasons I married this woman was so I could stop hanging out in bars and hoping to pick up a woman for sex. What if we add to the equation that sex occurred with this woman prior to the wedding? Don't I, at that time, have more of a "high moral ground" in arguing that it should be her who moves more toward the center in a compromise?
And don't wuss out with that "okay, you're right, but you're still not going to get laid" argument!
