So it's been a while since I've posted but here's an update.
I have been doing 180s and detaching and have accepted the marriage is over.
I have two kids aged 15 and 13.
WW is seeing other man still - he broke it off with her a couple of weeks ago. She still lives at the house with me but we sleep in separate rooms.
She has been acting out because of withdrawal symptoms. Her plan was to stay living in the home until next spring where she would move in with him.
Both my kids are in therapy.
Now OM reconnected with her but she wants to move into her own place so I will buy her out in a few months. She never lived by herself and married me as soon as she left home.
She thinks it will be easier on the kids if she moves into an apartment first and then moves in with OM.
If you followed my story you'll remember I drafted up a separation agreement. It stated that in order for her to live at the house she would need to buy me out but in order to afford this she'd need to get a better job. There was no end date to do this as that would have put unnecessary pressure on her. At the time we signed and notarized this agreement, OM was not yet in the picture.
Within two weeks of notarizing the document she had met OM and decided she didn't want to abide by the terms of the agreement. Ultimately she did get a better job recently. But now she has lost all interest in the house and refers to it as "my house" and the only thing that interests her is "getting the equity"
She insists she did not cheat on me despite me showing her evidence of the hotel room and the name of the dude before she met OM. I said you're a married woman living in the marital home pretending she's single. I don't care if you told me you separated before you did the deed - there is a court of law and the court of public opinion and the court of law takes precedent.
