Quote: It is not desired, but if spouses do not provide to our sexual needs, then divorce is allowed. Any Sexual Sin is a divorcible offense in the bible. So if she does not provide sex at a reasonable level, he may divorce her.
CeMar,
You've said this several times in different threads, but I don't think this is an accurate picture of the New Testament teaching on divorce. In the Old Testament, of course, a man could dismiss his wife on just about any pretext, provided there were a certificate of divorce. Deuteronomy is pretty clear on this:
Quote: Deu 24:1 When a man takes a wife, and marries her, then it shall be, if she find no favor in his eyes, because he has found some unseemly thing in her, that he shall write her a bill of divorce, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
Jesus was much more strict about this, and since Christians are followers of Jesus, the following passage has been the traditional standard for the Christian church:
Quote: Mat 5:31-32 "It was also said, 'Whoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorce,' but I tell you that whoever puts away his wife, except for the cause of sexual immorality, makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries her when she is put away commits adultery.
You say that "Any Sexual Sin is a divorcible offense in the bible". I don't think that's an accurate understanding of this passage. The Greek word PORNEIA that is translated "sexual immorality" means primarily unlawful sexual intercourse, including prostitution or fornication. I don't know of any indication at all that this word can refer to withholding sex from your spouse. Of course, even in the case of sexual immorality, Jesus allows for divorce but does not promote it.
Maybe you are referring to a different passage. If so, I'd be interested in knowing which one.
