Also, I'm still struggling with the term "no-fault" divorce. I guess when I hear that, it makes me think that neither party is claiming that the other is in any way "at fault", but it's been explained to me that is not exactly true, that it's a misleading phrase. That if this were to go to court, for example, I could still claim that adultery caused the break up of this marriage (by H's own admission to adultery), and that the judge could choose to take that into consideration. If anyone with legal background is reading, I'd love some input into whether my understanding of this is true.
M-60 H-51 M-14 years BD 12/26/16 S 1/1/17
"First the pain, then the rising." Glennon Doyle Melton
