Please let us look at the statistic on abuse. 1 in 4 women are abused. in some counties that rises to 40%. Whilst some men are abused the percentage is between 3 and 8% and 50% of that is same sex abuse.
Those figures don't sound right to me. Everything I've ever read says that incidence of male abuse (from their significant other female) is WAY underreported, and MUCH higher than most people commonly think.
and the "1 in 4" figure sounds very high as well. What threshhold is that researcher using to qualify as "abuse?"
