My attorney suggested H take the $3000 he owed me for the marital credit card out of his 401K and then he wouldn't have to pay me installments and the language could be taken out of the PMSA entirely. I told my attorney H would have a bird, and a bird he had. I guess I can understand, but I tried to explain to H that it was just a suggestion but my attorney emailed H language that needed to be added in case we go that route, and H was furious about it.
We also had language that if H cannot refi then the house is ordered up for sale and H alone is responsible for the shortfall. He won't agree but I can see why. My attorney wanted language saying H has to live in the house until it sells and keep up with the mortgage and tax payments. H refuses to agree to this.
So I want to know what H's lawyer thinks it should say. Per him, his lawyer says it is out of line. I want to know what is common language and use that. H said the language favors me and isn't holding parties equally responsible. That may be the case, but he is the one who wanted the house. And now he has no car payment so I am feeling less and less sympathetic.
I want this done though. But H was dumb enough to take this agreement to the underwriter without having me review it. And now I am supposed to just sign it as is. Idiot.
WH
AT BD: WH 41, J 43; Bomb 2/5/2012 Two kids, one dog D Final 6/18/14 J marries OW 1/24/15 "No matter where you go, there you are"