So I sent H and email saying that Monday after work is OK to come and get the boat, but that it will be a bit longer to get the rest of his things since I'll have family in for the next couple of weeks. Which is true. I plan to recruit them in getting everything else of his packed up and organized into the garage so he can just take it away.
He replies later in the day with : "Hi W. Monday should work but I may not get there until after 5pm because I may need to go and pay for the boat. I hope this works for you. Thanks for getting back to me."
My understanding from last year is that as long as the boat is for sale under the broker there is no fee, just a commission upon sale. Except in winter, which is why it stayed at my house but was listed on their website.
So it sounds to me like he's planning on using the boat this summer.
Yes, he's been making the payments but he wouldn't qualify for the loan without a co-signer. My name is still on the ownership, the loan, and the insurance. If he uses it, he benefits from what I did for him as a wife and the sale price continues to drop. So far there's been no discussion about any of this.
It felt like a kick in the guts with a steel toed boot. My bff suggested that this is because he is taking what was ours and making it his. Part of it, too, is because I've said to myself that once the boat sells, we're done. I never counted on him using it while my name is still attached, or on him finding someone else to co-sign, should that be the case.
I wrote back with "What do you mean pay for the boat? You're putting it there to sell, aren't you?"
Nothing back yet.
If my suspicion turns out to be correct, how should I handle it? That boat was his pride and joy, but he could only buy it because we co-borrowed.
Is there a way to DB this that won't make him truly hate me?
me 45 H 46 T 5 M 2.5 BD Sept 6 2011 OW Sept 8 2011 Threw him out Sept 8 2011
