Isn't there something about the date of separation which pertains to the marital assets at that time?
Why should the marital home have to be sold because the divorcing spouse made a poor financial decision. Why not her current abode? After all, where would the kids be? Is it like a guy telling a judge.. "Well, uh, I bought the boat of my dreams to express my renewed sense of freedom (exclusive of the marital slice funds) and now I can't afford it so sell the house and I'll keep the boat?
And wouldn't the custody be more like SP 70% and her 30%?
